Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Jim:

On Sat, Aug 21, 2010 at 10:38 AM, <jimstinehart AT aol.com> wrote:

> Karl wrote:  “[F]or you to say that the names had relationship to the type 
> of people they were, is to treat the account as fiction.”
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> That is quite similar to what Professor Yigal Levin has said to me several 
> times.
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> But if the author of chapter 14 of Genesis is an early Hebrew in the 
> mid-14th century BCE, which is my theory of the case, then in the 
> historical context, a non-royal author could not refer to a monarch by such 
> ruler’s formal name.  Rather, in that particular context, use of a nickname 
> was required:
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>
The Hebrew Old Testament consistently named kings by their given names, not
nicknames. So why should this narrative be different?

And who says that Abraham was not of royal stock?

I notice you did not comment on possible etymologies of R(, which makes your
proposed etymology quite unlikely.

Karl W. Randolph.

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> Jim Stinehart
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> Evanston, Illinois
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