Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ronald Monestime <wbsc400 AT gmail.com>]

Is there a particular reason why some constructs, even identical ones, use a 
maqqef while others do not. For example I have done a study on the expression 
"servant of God" (ebed Yawheh) and some of those expressions have the maqqef, 
while other identical ones do not. 
With maqqef:Deu 34:5Jos 1:13Jos 8:31Jos 8:33Jos 12:6Jos 14:7Jos 22:52Ch 
1:32Ch 24:6
Without maqqef:Jos 1:1Jos 1:15Jos 11:12Jos 13:8Jos 18:7Jos 22:2Jos 22:4Jos 
24:29Jdg 2:82Ki 18:12
My working thesis is that constructs with maqqef are emphasizing the inner 
quality/sense of the construct (e.g., "heart-of-fathers" in Mal 4:6), while 
the ones without it are just making a plain statement of fact with no such 
qualitative emphasis. Thank You,Ronald 
Monestimenjkproject.blogspot.comwww.njkproject.infowww.njkproject.info/wbsc
                                          
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