Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ronald Monestime <wbsc400 AT gmail.com>]

> > Is there a particular reason why some constructs, even identical ones, 
> > use a maqqef while others> > do not. For example I have done a study on 
> > the expression "servant of God" (ebed Yawheh) and> > some of those 
> > expressions have the maqqef, while other identical ones do not.> > With 
> > maqqef:Deu 34:5Jos 1:13Jos 8:31Jos 8:33Jos 12:6Jos 14:7Jos 22:52Ch 1:32Ch 
> > 24:6> > Without maqqef:Jos 1:1Jos 1:15Jos 11:12Jos 13:8Jos 18:7Jos 
> > 22:2Jos 22:4Jos 24:29Jdg 2:82Ki 18:12
> In all the cases you gave for with maqqef vs without maqqef, in the> with 
> maqqef examples, the> preceding word has a conjunctive cantillation mark 
> whereas in the> without maqqef it has a> disjunctive one. This suggests 
> that in the with-maqqef cases the> maqqef is there to create> a united 
> element to which the preceding word is conjoined.
> The maqqef essentially means that the two words are spoken as one> word, 
> and there is only> one primary stress, the word with the maqqef getting 
> secondary stress at most.
WBSC: My understanding has been that the use of Hebrew accents could also 
reflect the oral understanding/tradition and some words may be considered as 
a single entity, even in cantillation, because of this underlying 
historical/oral/theological understanding.
> You can read about the cantillation marks here:> 
> http://www.lrz-muenchen.de/~hr/teamim/
WBSC: Thanks for the reference link. I’ll look into it.                       
                          > By the way, in some of the cases above, a comma 
between examples would> have helped.
WBSC: I had actually written my message with each verse on a separate line 
but it was automatically reformatted on the B-Hebrew server side. That is why 
the formatting is as it appears above.
> Anyway, the meaning to be attached to the maqqef is first one of> sentence 
> structure as in> these examples.           
Ronald  njkproject.blogspot.comwww.njkproject.infowww.njkproject.info/wbsc

> Date: Fri, 26 Mar 2010 17:35:41 +0200
> From: yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Meaning of Use of maqquef
> 
> On Fri, Mar 26, 2010 at 1:08 AM, Ronald Monestime wrote:
> >
> > Is there a particular reason why some constructs, even identical ones, 
> > use a maqqef while others
> > do not. For example I have done a study on the expression "servant of 
> > God" (ebed Yawheh) and
> > some of those expressions have the maqqef, while other identical ones do 
> > not.
> > With maqqef:Deu 34:5Jos 1:13Jos 8:31Jos 8:33Jos 12:6Jos 14:7Jos 22:52Ch 
> > 1:32Ch 24:6
> > Without maqqef:Jos 1:1Jos 1:15Jos 11:12Jos 13:8Jos 18:7Jos 22:2Jos 
> > 22:4Jos 24:29Jdg 2:82Ki 18:12
> 
> In all the cases you gave for with maqqef vs without maqqef, in the
> with maqqef examples, the
> preceding word has a conjunctive cantillation mark whereas in the
> without maqqef it has a
> disjunctive one.  This suggests that in the with-maqqef cases the
> maqqef is there to create
> a united element to which the preceding word is conjoined.
> 
> The maqqef essentially means that the two words are spoken as one
> word, and there is only
> one primary stress, the word with the maqqef getting secondary stress at 
> most.
> 
> You can read about the cantillation marks here:
> http://www.lrz-muenchen.de/~hr/teamim/
> 
> By the way, in some of the cases above, a comma between examples would
> have helped.
> 
> Anyway, the meaning to be attached to the maqqef is first one of
> sentence structure as in
> these examples.
> 
> Yitzhak Sapir
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