Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Matthew:

How about Psalm 96:5, 1 Chronicles 16:26, 1 Samuel 12:21, Isaiah 44:9, 1
Kings 18:27, Hosea 8:6, etc. along with Deuteronomy 6:4 show conclusively
that:

1) the plural “Gods” is used for a single God, both the true God
(Deuteronomy 6:4) and a false god (1 Kings 18:27). Thus the plural noun
referring to “god” does not indicate of itself that polytheism is meant.

2) while the technical term “god” was used to refer to false gods, they were
denied standing as being gods at all, rather called “lifeless” (Isaiah 44:9)
or “demons” (Psalm 96:5) or simply their status as gods denied (Hosea 8:6).

What about where God speaks in the plural? In context, polytheism doesn’t
enter the picture, it is either the royal “we”, or as Christians believe,
the members of the triunity speaking together.

In this context, any modern work trying to claim polytheism will be twisting
the meaning of the text.

Karl W. Randolph.

Ps: the moderators prefer it that you sign your name on your posts.

On Thu, Mar 25, 2010 at 6:55 AM, matthew herbert
<mherbert578 AT hotmail.co.uk>wrote:

>
> Are there any recent literature/commentary pertaining to the supposed
> polytheistic content of these passages
>
> Thank you for you're help
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