Biblical Hebrew Forum

[George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>]

Kitchen's argument appeals to administrative memoranda circulating within 
Egyptian court circles. This would hold a lot more water IF the book of 
Exodus were just such an administrative memorandum within the Egyptian court 
circles of the specific Pharaoh it mentions. Then one could understand why 
Pharaoh is not named. But does anyone honestly believe that to be the 
case-that a piece of literature written in Hebrew was written for specific 
circulation as an administrative memorandum within the Egyptian court? I 
don't think even Kitchen would argue that.

And what do we then do with the Pharaohs in Genesis who also are not named?

And what then do we do with the fact that Pharaohs are specifically named in 
the books of Kings?

Kitchen's is a very very thin argument. It's almost beside the point.

In any case, does it really matter if the author(s) of Genesis and Exodus 
didn't know the names of particular Pharaohs? I can't see how it does.


Regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au