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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Kitchen 1998 answer to Athas 2010 point

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  • From: George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Kitchen 1998 answer to Athas 2010 point
  • Date: Mon, 15 Feb 2010 14:32:25 +1100

Kitchen's argument appeals to administrative memoranda circulating within
Egyptian court circles. This would hold a lot more water IF the book of
Exodus were just such an administrative memorandum within the Egyptian court
circles of the specific Pharaoh it mentions. Then one could understand why
Pharaoh is not named. But does anyone honestly believe that to be the
case-that a piece of literature written in Hebrew was written for specific
circulation as an administrative memorandum within the Egyptian court? I
don't think even Kitchen would argue that.

And what do we then do with the Pharaohs in Genesis who also are not named?

And what then do we do with the fact that Pharaohs are specifically named in
the books of Kings?

Kitchen's is a very very thin argument. It's almost beside the point.

In any case, does it really matter if the author(s) of Genesis and Exodus
didn't know the names of particular Pharaohs? I can't see how it does.


Regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au






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