Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

What about just the clause "wool and linen"? Without looking into the 
word shatnez itself, and the phrase "wool and linen" be interpreted as 
the definition or example or ambiguous? Does the grammar support it to 
be one over the other (or even more than the other)?

B"H
John

"He who makes a mistake is still our friend; he who adds to or shortens 
a melody is still our friend; but he who violates a rhythm unawares can 
no longer be our friend."
-Ishaq Ibn Ibrahim 767-850 CE.

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you 
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen

"The difference between the intelligent man and the simpleton is not the 
correctness of their decisions, but rather the cunning sinner can more 
skillfully defend and justify his iniquity."
- Rabbi Tovia Singer


Richard wrote:
> Everything I can find so far the word simply means "mixed stuff".
>
> Richard Conaway
>
>
>
>   
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-
> > bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Brak
> > Sent: Thursday, February 11, 2010 8:20 PM
> > To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> > Subject: [b-hebrew] Shatnez: Wool and Linen, or Animal Fiber and Plant
> >     
> Fiber?
>   
> > In Deut 22:11 it states:
> > <LO) TIL:B.A$ $A75(A+:N"Z CEMER W.PI$:T.IYM YAX:D.FW00>
> > "You shall not wear Shatnez, wool and linen together."
> >
> > My question is thus:
> > Linguistically, is the phrase "wool and linen" a definition of Shatnez
> > (according to Rabbinic Judaism) or an example of Shatnez (according to
> > Karaite Judaism). Or is it ambiguous, and can be read either way?
> >
> > Thanks in advance
> >
> > --
> >
> > B"H
> > John Steven
> > _______________________________________________
> > b-hebrew mailing list
> > b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
> >     
>
>
>