Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

The difference is that if "wool and linen" is read as a definition then 
ONLY a mixture of wool and linen is forbidden. If it is read as an 
example then other mixtures would be forbidden as well.

B"H
John Steven



James Christian wrote:
> Erm. I'm failing to see the difference. You just said the same thing 
> but from two different view points. A bit like asking whether 
> adfkgkdjgh means half empty cup or half full cup.
>
> James Christian
>
> 2010/2/12 Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com <mailto:Brak AT neo.rr.com>>
>
>     In Deut 22:11 it states:
>     <LO) TIL:B.A$ $A75(A+:N"Z CEMER W.PI$:T.IYM YAX:D.FW00>
>     "You shall not wear Shatnez, wool and linen together."
>
>     My question is thus:
>     Linguistically, is the phrase "wool and linen" a definition of Shatnez
>     (according to Rabbinic Judaism) or an example of Shatnez (according to
>     Karaite Judaism). Or is it ambiguous, and can be read either way?
>
>     Thanks in advance
>
>     --
>
>     B"H
>     John Steven
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