Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Ishinan" <ishinan AT comcast.net>]

Gerry Folbre wrote:


I suspect that the contextual clue exists within the plural masculine noun 
itself; ????? = 'LHYM {Elhym or Elohim} begins with the masculine noun ?? = 
'L that denotes "strength & power" and was common to most Semitic languages 
as denoting "the supreme God".  In the Occidental Semitic language related to 
Phoenician and to the language of Canaan that was adopted by the Israelites, 
the Ugaritic pantheon was presided over by El (i.e. ?? = 'L) (Larousse World 
Mythology, pg 86/7).  The proper noun Israel = ????? means: ? = he ?? = ruler 
?? = El/God.  The plural masculine noun ????? = Elhym appears to denote the 
multifaceted nature of the Israelites' monotheistic conception of their 
Deity. Therefore ????? can be contextually perceived as "a distinctive and 
descriptive appellation (or title)" that denotes the strengths and powers of 
the Israelites' monotheistic conception of their one true God.  None the 
less, ????? or Elohim is a common noun and so too is ?? = El, for the Name of 
the Israelites" multifaceted monotheistic Deity is ???? {perhaps meaning: ? = 
he ??? = becomes and/or ? = he ??? = destruction; e.g. Isaiah 45:7 I form 
light and create darkness: I make peace and create calamity; I ???? do all 
this).


---------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Dear Gerry,


Due to a font problem, I got the usual corrupted gibberish????   As a result 
I was unable to properly follow your line of thought. So please bear with me 
while I ask the following clarification regarding your response to James. 

In your opinion is: 

'LHYM ('LH) derived from `l  or simply a synonym for deity?  

Best regards.


Ishinan Ishibashi