Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Gerry Folbre <gerry AT wetmountainvalley.us>]

James Christian asks, "If Elohim in the creation account is to be 
understood as a strict title what are the contextual clues that make it 
understood as such?"



I suspect that the contextual clue exists within the plural masculine 
noun itself; ????? = 'LHYM {Elhym or Elohim} begins with the masculine 
noun ?? = 'L that denotes "strength & power" and was common to most 
Semitic languages as denoting "the supreme God".  In the Occidental 
Semitic language related to Phoenician and to the language of Canaan 
that was adopted by the Israelites, the Ugaritic pantheon was presided 
over by El (i.e. ?? = 'L) (Larousse World Mythology, pg 86/7).  The 
proper noun Israel = ????? means: ? = he ?? = ruler ?? = El/God.  The 
plural masculine noun ????? = Elhym appears to denote the multifaceted 
nature of the Israelites' monotheistic conception of their Deity.  
Therefore ????? can be contextually perceived as "a distinctive and 
descriptive appellation (or title)" that denotes the strengths and 
powers of the Israelites' monotheistic conception of their one true 
God.  None the less, ????? or Elohim is a common noun and so too is ?? = 
El, for the Name of the Israelites" multifaceted monotheistic Deity is 
???? {perhaps meaning: ? = he ??? = becomes and/or ? = he ??? = 
destruction; e.g. Isaiah 45:7 I form light and create darkness: I make 
peace and create calamity; I ???? do all this).



Gerry Folbre