Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

James:
Does a title, when it is used for a particular individual, cease to be a
title? Does it become a name?

For example, if I were to walk around city hall and talk about “the mayor”,
would there be any confusion with the local mayor and the Lord Mayor of
London? When the local mayor retires or is voted out of office, does the
title “mayor” go out with him, i.e. he retains the title “mayor”? Or does
someone else take that title?

I can’t think of any example where a proper name takes a definite article in
Hebrew. Yet titles often take a definite article, but not always. Therefore,
the lack of a definite article does not indicate that the title has become a
name.

In the case of the title “God”, just because Tanakh recognizes only one
individual as legitimately possessing that title, make it into a name? The
example of 1 Kings 18:27 indicates otherwise.

Therefore my counter question to yours, what indication is there that the
title “God” in Genesis 1 is to be taken as a proper noun (name)? I see none.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Thu, Oct 1, 2009 at 12:12 PM, James Christian
<jc.bhebrew AT googlemail.com>wrote:

> Hi,
> …
>
> Again, I repeat and restress my original question. If Elohim in the
> creation
> account is to be understood as a strict title what are the contextual clues
> that make it understood as such? There is no construct form in berewith
> bara
> Elohim ...
>
> James Christian
>
>