Biblical Hebrew Forum

[James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk>]

In Greek E???? . See Esther 2:10 at  
http://www.septuagint.org/LXX/Esther/2 for an example. For those whose  
email clients cannot view Greek characters there is clearly a theta  
(th) in the position in question.

For Latin see http://www.latinvulgate.com/verse.aspx?t=0&b=19&c=2  
chapter 2 and verse 8 for Hester.

In order to understand the transmission of names you have to  
understand that names were first transliterated into Greek (a language  
with different phonetic limitations to Hebrew) and then into Latin  
(another language with different phonetic limitations) and that most  
of our transliterations have come through this double filter and then  
been influenced by our own languages phonetic limitations.

An interesting case study are the names Jacob and Joshua in English  
translations. Somehow, they have managed to become Jacob and James for  
Iakov and Joshua and Jesus for Yehoshua. While it is relatively a  
simple exercise to see how Iakov underwent various transformations to  
become Jacob and how Yehoshua became Joshua it is presently beyond me  
just how exactly  English  versions got this strange fork when the  
Latin versions are devoid of it.

e.g. http://www.latinvulgate.com/verse.aspx?t=1&b=20 shows that James  
is clearly Iakobus in Latin.

James Christian

James Christian

Quoting Yodan <yodan AT yodanco.com>:

> Does anyone have an explanation to why the transliteration of Ester is
> Esther, considering the fact that TAV has a Dagesh and, therefore, has been
> pronounced T and not TH all along. I wonder if anyone knows how this name
> was transliterated into Greek or Latin - whether this name's third consonant
> is transliterated as T or TH.
>
>
>
> Thanks,
>
>
>
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> Rivka Sherman-Gold
>
> YODAN Publishing
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