Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yodan" <yodan AT yodanco.com>]

Shalom! 

 

I don't know if this question was discussed in this group, but I'm curious
to know if anyone knows (and, hopefully, has a reference for it) if Veit
(that's Beit without dagesh) was pronounced in "ancient times" (say at the
time of the Septuagint or later, during the first millennium CE, say at the
time of the Masoretes) as a V or as a soft B (like the Spanish B which is
also used by some Sephardi Jews). 

 

Thanks in advance.

 

 

Rivka Sherman-Gold

 

*********************************

YODAN Publishing

P.O. Box 60655

Palo Alto, CA 94306-0655

650-494-6994

Rivka AT Yodanco.com 

 

**********************************