Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>]

Dear Yitzhak,

[Yitzhak said]
It is interesting though, that you chose to ask me for the evidence,
rather than to ask Mr "GuerrillaVille" for evidence of his statement that his
given as a blanket assertion with no proof.

[Bryant]
My only reason for asking for proof from you and not from "Mr. GuerillaVille" 
is
that he gave some evidence (although of dubious validity) of his assertion. 
You
gave a blanket "No" without producing any evidence to his assertions. That is
why I asked for the proof from your side of the argument. That is also why I
asked also about whether your rejection of his argument is a rejection of his
evidence or a rejection of the entire premise of his argument.

I thank you for giving the evidence of your assertions.

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III



----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, March 28, 2009 1:22 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] WELSH AND HEBREW


> On Fri, Mar 27, 2009 at 6:43 PM, Bryant J. Williams III wrote:
> > Dear Yitzhak,
> >
> > If the statement is wrong then produced the evidence that it is wrong. Or
are
> > you disagreeing with the premise? Flat denials don't work.
>
> The above regards the statement "History shows that idiom does not cross the
> language barrier, so if two languages pretty much have absolutely
> interchangeable idioms then they must have the same source not too far
> removed."
>
> There's so much nonsense on this list, that it is simpler to just agree to
those
> statements made here that are in line with standard linguistics.  For 
> example,
> he quoted a webpage with all kinds of various expressions in "Hebrew."  The
> Hebrew is very broken Hebrew that misses gutturals and sometimes whole
> words, and misplaces vowels, and is later than the 13th-14th centuries CE.
> The author uses "idiom" in a very wide sense.  Here is a definition of 
> "idiom"
> according to standard linguistics:
> http://books.google.com/books?id=3JtAOHLtlHoC&pg=PA225
> Not to mention comparative linguistics, which is simply not done this way!
> There's even no explanation of why standard methods of comparative
> linguistics have been abandoned.
>
> Criticism of the whole attempt at comparing English and Welsh is available
> here:
> http://books.google.com/books?id=4geGv5N8AUoC&pg=PA88
>
> It is interesting though, that you chose to ask me for the evidence,
> rather than
> to ask Mr "GuerrillaVille" for evidence of his statement that his given as a
> blanket assertion with no proof.
>
> Yitzhak Sapir
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