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  • From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] barak (bless? curse?) in the Book of Job
  • Date: Wed, 28 Jan 2009 06:03:11 +0200

Dear John,

Please remember that the list rules state that all posts must be signed with the writer's full name.

Yigal Levin

co-mederator
b-hebrew


----- Original Message ----- From: "John Estell" <oldearther AT yahoo.com>
To: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>; <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, January 28, 2009 2:23 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] barak (bless? curse?) in the Book of Job



Harold,

I'm not quite following what you are saying. What did Satan mean by "to your face"?




________________________________
From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>
To: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, January 27, 2009 4:28:56 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] barak (bless? curse?) in the Book of Job

John ,
Young's Literal Translation renders Job 1:11 as such: The work of his hands Thou hast blessed, and his substance hath spread in the land, and yet, put forth, I pray Thee, Thy hand, and strike against anything that he hath -- if not: to Thy face he doth bless Thee!'

I understand that most translations translated barak as "curse" in this verse, as well as in Job 1:5, 2:5, and 2:9. However, does the usual sense of "to bless" make sense in this context?

Might Satan be asking God a question that if He put forth His hand against Job
will Job bless God to His face? Or in 2:5, might Satan have been telling God to put forth His hand and touch all Job has in order to see if he will still bless God?


HH: No, it does not seem to work. The "if not" is a veiled oath formula,
so Satan is swearing that Job will bless God to his face. And really,
what does "to your face" mean with "bless"?

Yours,
Harold Holmyard


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