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  • From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] d of z
  • Date: Fri, 10 Oct 2008 10:18:59 +0200

Hello again Doug,

I think that the conventional reading of "daughter of Zion" is that it always refers to either the city of Jerusalem, or to the land/people/kingdom of Judah as a whole. "Zion", as I'm sure you know, is a name for the hill on which Jerusalem was built, the hill that we also call "Moriah" or "The Temple Mount" (the use of "Zion" specifically for the western hill of the Old City that is common now is a Second Temple Period misidentification).
I can't think off-hand of any case in which "daughter of Zion" refers to "Israel" as a whole.

Yigal Levin



----- Original Message ----- From: "Doug Belot" <dbelot AT bigpond.net.au>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, October 10, 2008 2:39 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] d of z


Hi to all Hebrew scholars ,may I ask this question...

In 2nd Kgs 19:21 we see a reply from the LORD , to Sennacherib this way

2nd Kgs 19:21 The daughter of Zion has despised you , the daughter of Jerusalem has shaken her head at you behind your back.

This verse is repeated in Is 37:22 , also we find the term "daughter of Zion" used in many places , most obvious is Is 1:8 , Is 52:2 and Is 62:11 would I be out of ordert o consider that this "daughter" is a corporate term for Israel / Judah , after the Rehoboam/Jeroboam split .

And could I thus be able to say that all such terminology was meant to be taken as corporate Israel , or is it splitting Jerusalem and Israel .

And as the term comes direct from the Lord could I thus think that this is a term that he now regards Israel as, the daughter of Zion/Jerusalem

Doug Belot
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  • Re: [b-hebrew] d of z, Yigal Levin, 10/10/2008
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