Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Gabe:
Don't ask me what the English translations read, as I read it only once in
English, and that was many years ago.

I read this verse in context, both of what comes before, and afterwards. The
first two words are a continuation from the previous verse, the waw
indicates continuation. The verb can be from either SWR or YSR, from the
context I presently read it as from SWR. The context of the previous verses
gives a plural subject, who are not exactly in God's pleasure. Verse 25 is a
long question, with the closing idea "and they leave (turn aside) for
judgment?" Then the focus changes to "his God" and what he'll do. "His"
could refer either to each individual, or to the tribe (look at the
beginning of the chapter). As for the nun, I agree with those who answered
you before me. As for what God does, that is found in the following verses,
consistent with Deuteronomy 28.

Karl W. Randolph.

On Sun, Jun 29, 2008 at 5:11 PM, Gabe Eisenstein <gabe AT cascadeaccess.com>
wrote:

> Isaiah 28:26 = /vayisro l'mishpat elohaiv yorenu/
>
> English translations always render something like: "His God
> instructs/chastises him to judgment, and teaches him."
>
> My question concerns deriving "teaches HIM" from  /yorenu/. I would
> think that the translation would be "he will teach US". Yet all the
> translations agree. What am I missing?
>
> Second question: in the Socino Talmud (Sanhedrin 105a), the phrase
> /elohaiv yorenu/ by itself is translated "Let his God teach us". Here at
> least I get the expected "us". But what about the "Let ..."? Why not
> just translate "His God will teach us"? How would this difference  show
> up in Hebrew?
>
> thanks,
> Gabe Eisenstein
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