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  • From: Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] yorenu (Isaiah 28:26)
  • Date: Mon, 30 Jun 2008 05:39:17 +0300

Dear Gabe,

I'll start at the end. I did not look at the Soncino, but in the Hebrew at least, the verse is quoted in full. Take a look at http://www.mechon-mamre.org/b/l/l4411.htm - scroll down until you hit דף קה,א גמרא, it's 13 lines bellow that.

Actually, the whole phrase is strange. In the Isaiah passage, the prophet is using various planting and sowing imagery, and suddenly comes this short verse, which in Hebrew is only 4 words - "He ties him to judgement, his God teaches him". The Sanhedrin passage understands Isaiah as a call to Israel to repent, and thus translates in the plural: Israel = them. No mystery there. The original Isaiah passage, however, is worded in the singular - "He ties HIM to judgement" is paralelled by "HIS God teaches him".

Yigal Levin




----- Original Message ----- From: "Gabe Eisenstein" <gabe AT cascadeaccess.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, June 30, 2008 3:11 AM
Subject: [b-hebrew] yorenu (Isaiah 28:26)


Isaiah 28:26 = /vayisro l'mishpat elohaiv yorenu/

English translations always render something like: "His God
instructs/chastises him to judgment, and teaches him."

My question concerns deriving "teaches HIM" from /yorenu/. I would
think that the translation would be "he will teach US". Yet all the
translations agree. What am I missing?

Second question: in the Socino Talmud (Sanhedrin 105a), the phrase
/elohaiv yorenu/ by itself is translated "Let his God teach us". Here at
least I get the expected "us". But what about the "Let ..."? Why not
just translate "His God will teach us"? How would this difference show
up in Hebrew?

thanks,
Gabe Eisenstein
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