Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Yitzhak:

We have gone over this before, so I don't see any real benefit in
going over it again.

I have already described what appear to be pronunciation shifts in the
post Babylonian Captivity era, but that the data is too sparse to
prove it. But you  can't disprove it either.

As for modern people who champion the Byzantine tradition of New
Testament texts as being closer to the original manuscripts, those
have included scholars who prepared and edited modern republications
of the same, one of whom was Harstad (my main computer is down right
now, so I don't have access to others listed).

Karl W. Randolph.

On 6/16/08, Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com> wrote:
> On Mon, Jun 16, 2008 at 5:28 AM, K Randolph wrote:
>
>> The reason I dismissed the author's speculation is that, if there was a
>> pronunciation shift occurring and almost completed during the first
>> century,
>> what evidence would there remain of a previous pronunciation centuries
>> later? The earliest evidence from Galilean sources that he cited came from
>> three centuries later.
>>
>> As for the Majority Text being an older tradition, that is not my personal
>> theory, rather I found the arguments of those who champion the Majority
>> Text
>> as being more convincing than those who champion the modern scholarly
>> tradition, especially in light of the pronunciation variations found for
>> Hebrew and Aramaic transliterations.
>
> What pronunciation shift are you talking about?  What was the author's
> speculation?  What variations are you talking about?
>
> Yitzhak Sapir
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