Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

On Mon, Jun 16, 2008 at 5:28 AM, K Randolph wrote:

> The reason I dismissed the author's speculation is that, if there was a
> pronunciation shift occurring and almost completed during the first century,
> what evidence would there remain of a previous pronunciation centuries
> later? The earliest evidence from Galilean sources that he cited came from
> three centuries later.
>
> As for the Majority Text being an older tradition, that is not my personal
> theory, rather I found the arguments of those who champion the Majority Text
> as being more convincing than those who champion the modern scholarly
> tradition, especially in light of the pronunciation variations found for
> Hebrew and Aramaic transliterations.

What pronunciation shift are you talking about?  What was the author's
speculation?  What variations are you talking about?

Yitzhak Sapir