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  • From: <pporta AT oham.net>
  • To: "David H" <ai_ya AT hotmail.co.uk>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] About Dagesh's
  • Date: Sat, 24 May 2008 06:20:55 +0200

I would say:

1. In a general way:

--'be' and 'kol' usually take dagesh when the preceding syllable has a consonantal final sound: Gn 1:15; Dt 29:1; Lv 2:16, Js 2:18... (hundreds of occurrences)

--They take no dagesh when the preceding syllable has final vowel sound: 2Sa 20:2; 1K 18:26; 2Ch 28:17; Lv 10:3; Js 4:1... (many occurrences)

2. But there are several exceptions to this rule. I do not know whether there is some "rule" governing these exceptions. Namely... is there a "rule" telling which are the cases where the general rule does not apply? Maybe someone in the list knows. I do not know.

Greetings.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Catalonia, Spain)

___________

I have noticed some strange occurences of words that do not use a Dagesh where it would expect one; specifically, the preposition 'be' [in] and 'kol' [all], which were both written as 've' and 'chol' [i.e no dagesh].

This came up in Exodus 12:12 ;

' Ve'avarti VE'eretz mitzrayim ba'lailah hazeh, ve-hikeiti CHOL-bechor....'

I was wondering if anybody could explain why the usual dagesh-ed form is not used!

Thanks a lot!
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