Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

I would say:

1. In a general way:

--'be' and 'kol' usually take dagesh when the preceding syllable has a 
consonantal final sound: Gn 1:15; Dt 29:1; Lv 2:16, Js 2:18... (hundreds of 
occurrences)

--They take no dagesh when the preceding syllable has final vowel sound: 2Sa 
20:2; 1K 18:26; 2Ch 28:17; Lv 10:3; Js 4:1... (many occurrences)

2. But there are several exceptions to this rule. I do not know whether 
there is some "rule" governing these exceptions. Namely... is there a "rule" 
telling which are the cases where the general rule does not apply?  Maybe 
someone in the list knows. I do not know.

Greetings.

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Catalonia, Spain)

___________

> I have noticed some strange occurences of words that do not use a Dagesh 
> where it would expect one; specifically, the preposition 'be' [in] and 
> 'kol' [all],  which were both written as 've' and 'chol' [i.e no dagesh].
>
> This came up in Exodus 12:12 ;
>
> ' Ve'avarti VE'eretz mitzrayim ba'lailah hazeh, ve-hikeiti 
> CHOL-bechor....'
>
> I was wondering if anybody could explain why the usual dagesh-ed form is 
> not used!
>
> Thanks a lot!
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