Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Pere:
On Mon, Mar 31, 2008 at 8:55 PM, <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:

>  Karl,
>
> 1. How do you understand a "transitive use" of an INtransitive verb?
>

There are verbs that can be used as both transitives and intransitives. The
English verb "to run" is one of them. The Hebrew verb RWC has a similar
meaning in the intransitive, and appears from at least one use that it could
be used as a transitive as well.


> 2. Look at B. in  www.oham.net/out/P-d/P-d221.html and be aware that this
> pattern was approved by the Academy of the Hebrew Language in 1996 as
> Niph'al Past, third person singular masculine, of verbs ayin-ayin (RCC) (not
> of verbs ayin-waw: RWC)
>

Who is the Academy of the Hebrew Language that I should listen to them? I
never heard of them before (at least not by that name). If the context
indicates one meaning, should I listen to the context or to some claims by
other people without giving their reasons?

>
>
> Pere
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> *From:* K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
> *To:* pporta AT oham.net
> *Cc:* B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
> *Sent:* Monday, March 31, 2008 7:44 PM
> *Subject:* Re: [b-hebrew] Ecc 12:6: BWR
>
> Pere:
> You're right on the number, I mistyped it.
>
> What I said was that this is a transitive use of the verb. As a transitive
> use, the niphal is possible, even though in this particular example it is
> qal. As far as I know, intransitive verbs cannot take a niphal, but
> transitive ones can.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
>