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Re: [b-hebrew] Hebrew as a Spoken Language vs. Aramaic

From: dwashbur AT nyx.net
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hebrew as a Spoken Language vs. Aramaic
Date: Mon, 29 Oct 2007 11:34:10 -0700

Unfortunately, I'm not in a place where I have access to the journals right
now, but this looks
vaguely familiar; I may have read it before, I don't remember for sure.

On 29 Oct 2007 at 10:06, Ken Penner wrote:

> I'm providing a reference for a question Dave asked:
>
> > Or "ephphatha" in Mark 7:34. How do you see that relating to
> > the Hebrew/Aramaic question?
>
> Isaac Rabinowitz, "ephphatha Mark 7:34 : certainly Hebrew, not Aramaic."
> Journal of Semitic Studies, 16 no 2 (1971), 151-156.

In any case, putting this reference aside, you mentioned "talitha cumi" as a
transliterated
Aramaic phrase. My actual question is, how do you see transliterated Aramaic
phrases
relating to this whole question?

Dave Washburn
Why do it right when you can do it again?

Re: [b-hebrew] Hebrew as a spoken language , (continued)