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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Is it right?

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  • From: <pporta AT oham.net>
  • To: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Is it right?
  • Date: Fri, 26 Oct 2007 06:18:28 +0200

I see you took this off list.

PP - It has been a mistake


On 10/25/07, pporta AT oham.net <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:
> Pere:

> On 10/25/07, pporta AT oham.net <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:
>> In Is 42:5 we find the word W:NW+YHM.
>> As it is, this is a Qal Participle, construct, plural masculine.
>> Should it not be in the singular, namely without yud?
>>
>> Or maybe this yud is important here?
>>
>> Pere Porta
>> Barcelona (Spain)
>
> This is a Qal singular participle with a third person plural suffix,
> from the verb N+H, treating $MYM as a plural.

_________

Then.... which is the purpose here of the letter yud after tet? In a
general way it would show plural, not singular. May we think this yud is a
"scribal" mistake?

Pere Porta

No. Because the verb ends in a heh, a common practice is that the heh
changes into a yod before a suffix. This does not change it to a
plural, just a linguistic practice.

Does that answer your question?

PP - No.
In Ps 115:8 (3rd word) there is a similar word which is in plural (yud = marker of plural)
In Zc 11:5 (2nd word): the same thing.

Beside the instance in Is 42:5, are there other similar cases in the Bible where yud is not a marker of plural but of singular?

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)



Karl W. Randolph.






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