Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

> I see you took this off list.

PP - It has been a mistake


> On 10/25/07, pporta AT oham.net <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:
> > > Pere:
> >
> > > On 10/25/07, pporta AT oham.net <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:
> > >> In Is 42:5 we find the word W:NW+YHM.
> > >> As it is, this is a Qal Participle, construct, plural masculine.
> > >> Should it not be in the singular, namely without yud?
> > >>
> > >> Or maybe this yud is important here?
> > >>
> > >> Pere Porta
> > >> Barcelona (Spain)
> > >
> > > This is a Qal singular participle with a third person plural suffix,
> > > from the verb N+H, treating $MYM as a plural.
> >
> > _________
> >
> > Then.... which is the purpose here of the letter yud after tet?  In a
> > general way it would show plural, not singular.  May we think this yud is 
> > a
> > "scribal" mistake?
> >
> > Pere Porta
> No. Because the verb ends in a heh, a common practice is that the heh
> changes into a yod before a suffix. This does not change it to a
> plural, just a linguistic practice.
>
> Does that answer your question?

PP - No.
In Ps 115:8 (3rd word) there is a similar word which is in plural (yud = 
marker of plural)
In Zc 11:5 (2nd word): the same thing.

Beside the instance in Is 42:5, are there other similar cases in the Bible 
where yud is not a marker of plural but of singular?

Pere Porta
Barcelona (Spain)



> Karl W. Randolph.