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  • From: <pporta AT oham.net>
  • To: "Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Historic reasons?
  • Date: Wed, 17 Oct 2007 18:25:00 +0200

In my study on Hebrew patterns I have remarked that as regards the Qal
imperfect 3rd person singular masculine or most transitive regular verbs the
Bible uses, in a general way, the short form (look at
www.oham.net/out/P-t/P-t189.html) more often, by far, than the long one
(look at www.oham.net/out/PI-t2/PI-t2-034.html).

But this seems not to apply to the book of Job, where the long form seems to
be much more usual than the short one.

I'm wondering whether there are any reasons (perhaps historic? others?) for
this.

Your "long" and "short" forms appear to be not what Hebraists normally use in
reference to verbs.

Oh, yes. I mistook "long" for "male". Excuse me.

Thus, the word
thwm is pronounced toho:m with a short [o] after the t.

This word thwm ---- where does it appear (book, chapter, verse)?

Finally, you do not answer to my question: is there any especial reason to the fact that in Job the male is used instead of the defective?

Pere Porta


Yitzhak Sapir
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