Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bruce Prince" <bruceprince AT bigpond.com>]

Folks

Not being very good at understanding the intricate details of Biblical
Hebrew, I'm wondering if you can help me understand what is going on in this
verse?

Generally, Christendom paints Samson as a bad man, but I'm not convinced.
Even whilst staying in Gaza, the power of the Lord was upon him as he heaved
those massive gates out of their foundation and up the hill. God's purpose
for Samson was to rile the Philistines - a task he seemed particularly
adapted to.

Samson's reputation had gone before him to this city, and I'm wondering if
he was simply using the home of the harlot as a place of abode in much the
same way that the spies used Rahab's home in Jericho.

Does the Hebrew of this verse undeniably state that Samson had intercourse
with the harlot? Verse 3 states that he lay until midnight; it doesn't say
that he lay with her.

I'd appreciate any views.

Thanks

Bruce Prince
Australia