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  • From: "JAMES CHRISTIAN READ" <JCR128 AT student.anglia.ac.uk>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] virgin vs. young woman
  • Date: Thu, 19 Jul 2007 20:51:27 +0100

Has anyone considered that maybe neither parthenos nor
alma have a one to one mapping to neither 'virgin' nor
'girl' but rather a mix of both?

As any linguist knows there is rarely a 100% one to one mapping between words
of any two languages. English is
a particularly difficult language to translate into
because of its history.

The following etymology of English 'virgin' is taken from
here:
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=virgin

virgin (n.) Look up virgin at Dictionary.com
c.1200, "unmarried or chaste woman noted for religious piety and having a
position of reverence in the Church," from O.Fr. virgine, from L. virginem
(nom. virgo) "maiden, unwedded girl or woman," also an adj., "fresh, unused,"
probably related to virga "young shoot." For sense evolution, cf. Gk. talis
"a marriageable girl," cognate with L. talea "rod, stick, bar." Meaning
"young woman in a state of inviolate chastity" is recorded from c.1310. Also
applied since c.1330 to a chaste man. Meaning "naive or inexperienced person"
is attested from 1953. The adj. is recorded from 1560 in the lit. sense; fig.
sense of "pure, untainted" is attested from c.1300. Virginity is attested
from c.1303, from O.Fr. virginite, from L. virginitatem (nom. virginitas),
from virgo.


In English, virgin is a word with quite a high register
due to its Latin origin which is rarely used in everday
conversation. How often do we hear this on the streets
of London? 'Look at those beautiful virgins'.

Such remarks would usually spark reams of hysterical
laughter from your average Engishman (or English speaking
person in general). But such was not the case in the
days that Latin was the lingua franca. Talking about 'virginem' was probably
an everday event (especially
for young single blokes hoping to score one). Although
their state of virginity was probably a secondary,
albeit thoroughly understood, aspect of the word while
it's primary aspect was that of a young girl (of marriagable age (generally
understood or at least hoped
to be a 'virgin'))).
It's really quite ironic that the
the discussion in general about meaning can equally be
applied to the Latin from which we get our overly too
specific word (virgin) to provide an adequate translation.
English 'virgin' can equally be applied to men for one
which completely disqualifies the term for any kind of
100% one to one mapping of any kind.

In such cases where words clearly have no such one to
one mapping it is an exercise in futility to deal with
words as if they were single entities with one and only
one meaning devoid of any kind of context.

I've been in the Ukraine for a while and I've noted tha t
they have two words, literally but not entirely 'girl'
and 'woman'. The word for woman 'zhinka' is used also
for English 'wife' (much the same as hebrew) and
context renders clear which aspect of the word is
emphatic. The word for 'girl', 'divchina', is used for
girl/young woman and secondarily, in limited contexts, as
'virgin' (similar to hebrew). The word 'divchina' is
by far most commonly used as equivalent to English
'girl' but I have heard it used in contexts where the
aspect most clearly being emphasised is that of 'virginity'.

Is it not possible that the same could be happening
here in the hebrew? That while the word has both aspects,
the primary one being that of 'girl/young woman' (do
we really say 'young woman' in English? or girl?), there
are contexts where the aspect being emphasised is clearly
the second one, that of 'virginity'?

As a final point, doesn't anyone find it a little
hard to believe that a Hebrew (Matthew), who wrote
in Hebrew (according to Origen), whose agenda was to
prove to Hebrews (with an equal command and understanding
of the Hebrew word in question) a particular point would
risk distancing himself from his intended audience by
using the word in a way in which contradicts its
generally accepted meaning? as equivalent to English
'girl' but I have heard it used in contexts where the
aspect most clearly being emphasised is that of 'virginity'.

Is it not possible that the same could be happening
here in the hebrew? That while the word has both aspects,
the primary one being that of 'girl/young woman' (do
we really say 'young woman' in English? or girl?), there
are contexts where the aspect being emphasised is clearly
the second one, that of 'vi





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