Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Joseph:

Strictly speaking from its use, the virgin/young woman using the definite
article need not be known to Isaiah nor to those around him, even though a
specific individual is meant, with the indefinite article not being known.
The use of the definite article merely indicates that a specific individual
is meant, not that he/she is present or even known to the speaker or
audience.

On the other hand, if the person was known, then the use of the definite
article indicates that this could not be a prophecy for centuries later.
That's where the definition of (LMH עלמה comes into play.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 6/17/07, JoeWallack AT aol.com <JoeWallack AT aol.com> wrote:
> In a message dated 6/8/2007 4:46:28 PM Central Daylight Time,
> kenneth AT messianicmistakes.com writes:
>
> Joe,
>
> What exactly are you trying to prove by  discussing the definite article
> in
> Isaiah 7:14? I don't see how it makes a big  difference if it means "the"
> or
> "a" young woman or virgin or whatever people  want to think it means.
>
> Sincerely,
>
> Kenneth Greifer
>
>
>
>
> Shalom chaver. The Definite article is evidence that the young woman in
> question was known to Isaiah and his immediate audience within the context
> of  the
> Narrative. You and I need to be careful to restrict our argument to
> Translation and not Interpretation. If the Issue becomes Polemical The
> Sage List
> Owners will close it. Remember what happened the last time we tried to
> have a
> Public Polemic in the 1300s.
>
>
>
> Joseph
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