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  • From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Question for Rolf on the JW outlook on the Hebrew
  • Date: Sat, 24 Mar 2007 20:55:43 -0500

Rolf Furuli wrote:
Dear Harold,

In the study of a dead language we can never draw a conclusion and believe that this is the final word, this is the truth. But by the use of different approaches we can try to come as close the the correct understanding as possible. I have also applied my model to New Testament Greek, although I have not yet analysed all the verbs of the NT. You are correct in your observations that the aorist may have non-pastreference - it can even has future reference (e.g., Jude 1:14). My conclusion so far is that past tense is not a part of the aorist, but it represents the perfective aspect. I take the imperfect as as past tense + the imperfective aspect, present as the imperfective aspect, and future as future tense.

HH: So how do you distinguish the aorist from the perfect? Presumably the perfect is also perfective, as you are saying the aorist is.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard





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