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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Verbal Aspect (was Tenses - Deut 6:4)

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  • From: Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>
  • To: Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Verbal Aspect (was Tenses - Deut 6:4)
  • Date: Sun, 04 Mar 2007 21:19:44 +0000

On 04/03/2007 11:09, Rolf Furuli wrote:
Dear David,

The article I refer to includes a translation of 40 lines of the Phoenician Karatepe inscription. In these lines there are 4 QATALs, 2 WEQATALs, and 21 infinitive absolutes (16 with prefixed WAW) that carry the narrative forwards. No one would argue that the infinitive absolute is a grammaticalized preterit or is perfective. Yet, these forms function exactly as the WAYYIQTOLs in Hebrew. This shows that we cannot draw the conclusion that the Hebrew WAYYIQTOL is a past tense or is perfective on the basis of its function.

Rolf, I haven't followed this thread in detail, but why would no one argue this? I would expect the a priori understanding of forms "that carry the narrative forwards" to be "a grammaticalized preterit [and] perfective". I agree that this would have to be demonstrated rather than simply stated. But why is no one arguing this, i.e. that in Phoenician (but not in BH) the infinitive absolute has become re-grammaticalised as a past tense with perfective aspect. After all, it is common for participles to be re-grammaticalised as finite tense forms, as with the Hebrew participle which has become the present tense in modern Hebrew, and the Russian past tense which is a former participle (a history given away in both cases by gender agreement but no person agreement). And at least in French, German and Russian an infinitive form can be used with the meaning of an imperative, a finite verb. Why shouldn't an infinitive be similarly re-grammaticalised as a finite verb with an indicative meaning?


--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://www.qaya.org/blog/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/




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