Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

In looking at the use of the word in Genesis, one needs to take into
account the parallel accounts in other works of the late Second
Temple period.  Isaac Fried has preferred the KJV translation over
the "legends" of the Talmud, which is surprising given the relative
dates of the two sources.  However, the KJV is actually dependent
upon the LXX in its translation here.   The question is then why
did the LXX translate "giant"?  The answer appears to be twofold:
first, it is quite possible that the LXX had a text that read "gbrym"
rather than "nplym".  This is the root used in this verse in the
Targum Onqelos and Neofiti and gbr is translated similarly by the
LXX in Gen 10:8,9.  Another more relevant issue to consider is that
the nafilim were viewed as gigantic beings, the most clearest
passage suggesting this being Num 13:33.  However, the word
nafilim refers not to the gigantic stature of these beings as to
the view that these are, in fact, the fallen angels.  The Targum
Pseudo-Jonathan is even clearer on the intent:
http://cal1.cn.huc.edu/cgi-bin/hebpsj.cgi?verse=10601
(also http://www.geocities.com/proptrek/pseudo-1.html )
$mxz)y w(z)l hynwn npln mn $my) whww b)r() bywmy)
h)ynwn w)wp btr kn d(lwn bny rbrby) lwt bnt )yn$) wylydn
lhwn whynwn mtqryyn gybryn dm(lm) )yn$y $mhn
"Shamhazai and Azael fell from heaven and were on earth in
those days, and also after that, when the sons of the great ones
came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to
them: the same are called men of the world, the men of renown."
(Translation from the following source)

A nice review of many relevant sources, and which I think is
important reading for all those in this discussion, is available
here: http://tinyurl.com/yk7cxc (pdf)
Robert Newman, "The Ancient Exegesis of Genesis 6:2, 4",
Grace Theological Journal 5,1 (1984) 13-36

Yitzhak Sapir