Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

     This seems a clear mistake of either early MT transmission,  
    or of an early vocalizer. What makes this rather obvious  is   
   that in the previous verse, 2:2, in the same root there is a  
    Dagesh Qal  in the Pe where it belongs, and  no Dagesh in   
   the S(.)ade.
              The other answer , while possible, is rather forced.
   
              Uri
   
     Yigal Levin wrote:
> Dear all,
>
> Can anyone explain the word  
> הַצְּפִינוֹ֒
>  "hacepino" - why is there a dagesh in the sade and not in the pe?
>
>   
See GKC 20h, where (as noted in BDB) this word is listed as an example 
of "When a consonant with /Sheva/ is strengthened by /Dagesh forte 
dirimens/ to make the /Sheva/ more audible" (spellings of Hebrew points 
adjusted).


-- 
Peter Kirk

 
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>From peter AT qaya.org  Sat Jan 13 16:19:39 2007
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 55
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On 13/01/2007 20:01, Bob MacDonald wrote:
> ...
>
> The English word 'while' - is it a reading into the preposition +
> infinitive? 
>
>   
It is, I think, an accurate translation of preposition + infinitive. 
"When" would also be accurate, but at least to my British ear "while" 
works better in this context.

-- 
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/