Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] "...she shall be called woman" masculine??

b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: <pporta AT oham.net>
  • To: "Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>, "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.Ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] "...she shall be called woman" masculine??
  • Date: Fri, 5 Jan 2007 06:15:25 +0100



Genesis 2:23 - "...she shall be called woman". YiQaReA (niphal), I had
expected the feminine here. It seems that there is a subliminal message in
this declaration by Adam, in that whereas he began the statement with "ZOT"
(this, feminine) he now refers to the woman with the masculine, signifying
perhaps the reference to the fact that she(he?) was from HIS flesh and with
that he shows that he recognizes what has just taken place. Am I making a
fool of myself here?

Nothing at all, Chris.
Remark: you would be right if ZOT was the subject of YiQaReA.
But the subject or YiQaReA is not "ZOT". This "ZOT" has a lamed prefixed (LZOT) what does not allow it to be the subject of YiQaReA.
The sense of the text is: ...people/they/one will call this one (this female) woman because...
Namely, here the niphal gives to the sentence an impersonal meaning, like in French 'On l'appelera "femme"...' = elle sera appelée "femme".

Pere




Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page