Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Bob MacDonald <bobmacdonald AT shaw.ca>]

Thanks HH - that explains 1 T, the one in Psalm 53 if, as you say, it is
plural.  Could be an intensive plural, I suppose...

Why is the last letter a T in Psalm 14? I can't (as usual) find the word in
the Lexicons :)

Anyone interested in a comparison of these two psalms can have a look at
http://bmd.gx.ca/psalms/320.htm

Bob MacDonald
Victoria BC
http://gx.ca
http://bmd.gx.ca
 
-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Harold Holmyard
Sent: Thursday, January 04, 2007 8:30 PM
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psalm 14:7; 53:6/7

Dear Bob,
> What is the story behind the 'declension' of Salvation: in one case
> yod-shin-vav-ayin-taw (14:7) in the second case the ayin and vav are
> reversed and the u vowel is marked by qibbus without using the vav as
mater
> and the final syllable has a holem with vav rather than a patah (with the
> ayin).
>
>  
>
> Do these words both mean salvation? Why the taw as last letter? It doesn't
> seem to be a pronominal suffix.
>
>   
HH: Yes, they both mean "salvation." One is singular and the other is 
plural. It is the same basic word. In Hebrew there is an abstract 
plural, and that is what probably occurs in Ps. 53:6. Either that or the 
author thinks in terms of various acts of deliverance.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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