Biblical Hebrew Forum

[sujata <shevaroys AT yahoo.com>]

Dear Yigal,
   
  Thanks for the help.
   
  Is enkri (1 Kings 8:41) still used?
   
  Best,
  Sujata

Yigal Levin <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:
  Dear Sujata,

In the Hebrew of the Tanakh, "goy/goyyim" and "(am/(ammim" are practically 
synonomous, both meaning "nation/s" or "people/s", including Israel. There 
is probably a small difference in meaning, but that's hard to tell.
However, during the Second Temple period, Jews began using the term "goyyim" 
specifically to denote non-Jews, i.e. "Gentiles". This usage persists to 
this day, and influenced early Christian interpretation, as well as the KJV.

Yigal Levin


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "sujata" 
To: 
Sent: Saturday, October 07, 2006 8:03 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Use of Gentile/Heathen People or nation?


> Karl,
> Wherefrom the word gentile in the English translation? Where and when was 
> it used first?
> Thanks,
> Sujata
>
> K Randolph wrote:
> Seth:
>
> "Heathen" and "Gentile" are terms that I have not found in Tanakh. KL
> (MYM means "all peoples" whereas if you want to say "all the Persian
> people" it would be KL (M PRS.
>
> I think this answers your question.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> On 10/6/06, Seth Knorr wrote:
>> Karl,
>>
>> So when you say ethnic groups;
>> In the correct context could these refer to for instance:
>> ALL Persians, ALL Romans, ALL Heathen, ALL Gentiles, ALL Jews, etc...
>>
>> Sincerely,
>>
>> Seth Knorr
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