Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Bill:

Looking at the uses of )$M, it refers to the status of being guilty.
Of course, if a person's moral compass is healthy, he should also feel
guilty, but it is the status, not the feeling, that counts.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 8/23/06, Bill Rea <bsr15 AT cantsl.it.canterbury.ac.nz> wrote:
> Hello B-Hebrewers,
>
> I was reading Milgrom's Anchor Commentary on Leviticus and
> he makes an usual translation of we`ashem in Lev 5:23 which is
> Lev 6:4 in most English translation. The common understanding
> is like the KJV:-
>
> Then it shall be, because he hath sinned, and is guilty, ...
>
> Milgrom translates this as feeling guilty and makes extensive
> comments on this on page 372 where he draws on Jewish commentators,
> exegetes, and rabbis going back to Philo. It appears that
> his translation is well supported by Jewish tradition but it
> is not the one used in most commonly used. I checked KJV, NASB,
> and NRSV and they use something similar.
>
> Would anyone care to comment on the validity of ``feeling
> guilty'' as a legimate understanding of the use of this word
> in this context.
>
> Thanks.
>
> Bill Rea, University of Canterbury Supercomputer \_
> E-Mail bill.rea AT canterbury.ac.nz                 </   New
> Phone 64-3-364-2331, Fax  64-3-364-2332         /)  Zealand
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