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  • From: Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Also asking a question - Re: YHWH is Aramaic?
  • Date: Thu, 29 Jun 2006 09:17:31 -0500

Why can't both be true? G-d gave a Name to Himself from the beginning, and communicated it to mankind, and inherent in the Name is a certain idea of Himself.

I am NOT proselytizing - just informing you that we believe that there were many names as G-d engaged in the process of self-revelation, that one Name was the holiest and unutterable, that each name is used in the Torah to connote some aspect of G-d that is operating in that instance. It is also a belief that the entire Torah consists of G-d's names. And it is the belief of Torat HaNistar (hidden information in the Torah) that by permutations of the letters of G-d's names, it is possible to tap into Spiritual Energy.

Also, can you remind me why Ehyeh asher Ehyeh is translated as I AM and not in future? Every Jewish Commentary, when expounding on it, makes the assumption that we all know that the word is used as future tense.

OK I'm done, don't take this post the wrong way, please.

Shoshanna



HH: True, but what I understand as being proposed was that God had a
name from some other sphere and simply communicated it to mankind. No, I
believe the name Yahweh is one that he invented in order to convey a
certain idea of himself to mankind.





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