Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Yigal:

Thanks. I was just curious.

That leaves the question of MDHBH and its meaning.

I now click "reply all" if I don't want to go 
off list. Your mail program should have that too.

Karl W. Randolph.


> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
> 
> Hi Karl.
> 
> I didn't intend to go off list. I guess I just clicked "reply" without
> changing the address.
> 
> In any case, the first part of the verse is certainly NOT Aramaic: as for
> the second part, it's not either, although I think that the individual words
> could be, the syntax is not.
> 
> Yigal
> 
> 
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
> 
> > Yigal:
> >
> > I see you took this off list.
> >
> > That's not the question.
> >
> > The question is, are these words also simple Aramaic? And if so, 
> > do they have the same meanings as simple Hebrew? If the answer is 
> > "yes" to both the above, then is it possible that Isaiah intended 
> > a simple Aramaic inclusion in his text, just as Jeremiah did?
> >
> > Yes I recognize that the man on the street did not know Aramaic, 
> > and I suspect that there was little change from Isaiah's day to 
> > Jeremiah's. That's why Jeremiah had only one sentence in Aramaic 
> > in his whole book. Is it possible that Isaiah did the same?
> >
> > Karl W. Randolph.
> >

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