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  • From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
  • To: "'Karl Randolph'" <kwrandolph AT email.com>, "'B-Hebrew'" <b-hebrew AT lists.Ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Ps 25:11 imperative & waw
  • Date: Wed, 26 Apr 2006 22:55:02 -0400



Karl, Do you, or anyone know of any other examples, preferably 3, where the
waw prefix is translated as "that"?
Thanks,
-Steve

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Karl Randolph Sent: Tuesday, April 25, 2006 8:59 PM
>
> Steve:
>
> I read this waw as having a meaning translated
> better as "that" than "and". The same as the last
> waw in Isaiah 53:2 "that we should desire that
> particular one."
>
> So the reading of Psalm 25:11 "It is for your
> name's sake that you forgive my perversion, for
> it is great."
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
> >
> > Friends,
> >
> > I have 2 questions on Ps 25:11 - For Your name’s sake, O Lord, Pardon my
> > iniquity for it is great.
> >
> > לְמַֽעַן־שִׁמְךָ יְהוָה וְֽסָלַחְתָּ לַעֲוֹנִי כִּי רַב־הֽוּא׃
> >
> >
> >
> > Question 1:
> >
> > The verb “pardon” in this verse is 2nd person perfect with a waw prefix,
> but
> > it is usually translated as imperative as above.
> >
> > I have noticed this a lot, in the Psalms at least, that 2nd person
> imperfect
> > or perfect is translated as imperative.
> >
> > Would it be more accurate to translate it as, “For Your name’s sake, O
> Lord,
> > you have pardoned …”(YLT)?
> >
> > Or “For Your name’s sake, O Lord, you will pardon …” (Darby) with the
> waw
> > reversing the tense?
> >
> > If it is best translated as imperative, what is the difference in
> meaning
> > between this and a real imperative in the text?
> >
> >
> >
> > Question 2:
> >
> > What is the meaning of the “waw” prefixed to “pardon”. All translations
> that
> > I have looked at (KJB, YLT, Darby, ASV, Stone Tanach) except for LXX
> ignore
> > it. LXX translates it as:
> >
> > For Your name’s sake, O Lord, *also* pardon …
> >
> > There is no way to join “for Your name’s sake” to the end of the
> previous
> > verse because of the change in person from 3rd to 2nd.
> >
> > Would it be correct in translating it into English, to move the waw to
> the
> > beginning as in:
> >
> > And for Your name’s sake, O Lord, Pardon ….?
> >
> >
> >
> > Thank you,
> >
> > -Steve Miller,
> >
> > Detroit
>






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