Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Steve:

I read this waw as having a meaning translated 
better as "that" than "and". The same as the last 
waw in Isaiah 53:2 "that we should desire that 
particular one."

So the reading of Psalm 25:11 "It is for your 
name's sake that you forgive my perversion, for 
it is great."

Karl W. Randolph.

> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>
> 
> Friends,
> 
> I have 2 questions on Ps 25:11 - For Your name’s sake, O Lord, Pardon my
> iniquity for it is great.
> 
> לְמַֽעַן־שִׁמְךָ יְהוָה וְֽסָלַחְתָּ לַעֲוֹנִי כִּי רַב־הֽוּא׃
> 
> 
> 
> Question 1:
> 
> The verb “pardon” in this verse is 2nd person perfect with a waw prefix, but
> it is usually translated as imperative as above.
> 
> I have noticed this a lot, in the Psalms at least, that 2nd person imperfect
> or perfect is translated as imperative.
> 
> Would it be more accurate to translate it as, “For Your name’s sake, O Lord,
> you have pardoned …”(YLT)?
> 
> Or “For Your name’s sake, O Lord, you will pardon …” (Darby) with the waw
> reversing the tense?
> 
> If it is best translated as imperative, what is the difference in meaning
> between this and a real imperative in the text?
> 
> 
> 
> Question 2:
> 
> What is the meaning of the “waw” prefixed to “pardon”. All translations that
> I have looked at (KJB, YLT, Darby, ASV, Stone Tanach) except for LXX ignore
> it. LXX translates it as:
> 
> For Your name’s sake, O Lord, *also* pardon …
> 
> There is no way to join “for Your name’s sake” to the end of the previous
> verse because of the change in person from 3rd to 2nd.
> 
> Would it be correct in translating it into English, to move the waw to the
> beginning as in:
> 
> And for Your name’s sake, O Lord, Pardon ….?
> 
> 
> 
> Thank you,
> 
> -Steve Miller,
> 
> Detroit

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