Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Harold Holmyard <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Steve Miller wrote:

> > Jerry Shepherd Sent: Tuesday, April 04, 2006 3:29 PM> (1) Watts, in his commentary in the Word series, 
> > (Isaiah 34-66, pp. 241,> 246; I don't have access to the 2d edition) says that the last word in Isa> 55:5 
> > has a 2fs suffix.  My older Logos version, as well as Accordance (a> student checked for me) have it as 2fs 
> > also.  However, if I am reading> Jouon-Muraoka correctly (§61i, [vol. 1, p. 173]), it is identified 
> > there> as 2ms.  It seems more likely to me that this latter is correct and that> the suffix is simply in 
> > pause.  Anything I am missing?> John J. Owens' Analytical Key to the OT says the suffix of פֵאֲרָֽךְ in 
> > Isa.55:5 is 2ms pausal. Could someone explain to me, what does "pausal" mean?Thanks!-Steve 
> > MillerDetroit
> >    

HH: Steve, any good Hebrew grammar should discuss the concept of pausal 
forms. See Gesenius  Kautch Cowley 29i-v, or  check the index in Waltke 
and O'Connor.

The former understands pause as "the strong tress laid on the 
tone-syllable in the last word of a sentence (verse) or clause."

The latter define pause as "the break in Masoretic verse division 
associated with the end of a verse (marked with silluq and sof pasuq) or 
the middle of a verse (usually marked with athnach); a form in pause may 
show various phonological shifts, in accentuation or vacalization or 
both." 

Yours,
Harold Holmyard