Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>]

> Some languages use a dative in situations where others require the
> accusative, and that's why we translate the literal "become to" as
> "become" in English.

So, you suggest that Hebrew dative is consistently accusative in English? 
('became a living soul' seems ablative to me)
Try to support this statement.
Or, is it a convenient ad hoc assumption?

> Similarly, Russian (as you know) requires genitive after some
> negation, but it would be a mistake to use the genitive in those
> situation in English.  (E.g., Russian "I don't have time" should
> clearly NOT be "I don't have time's" in English.)  Other examples
> abound.

I don't follow. English is, "I have no time," also genitive.

Vadim Cherny