Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 21/08/2005 04:12, Karl Randolph wrote:

> ... So where does it have an opposite meaning? The 
> concordance I use lists three possible times, Leviticus 
> 20:17, Proverbs 14:34, 25:10, but each makes sense using 
> the above meaning, so where is the opposite meaning?
>
>  
Karl, I really don't see how you can consider that incest between a 
brother and sister, in Lev 20:17, can be described as anything like 
"(undeserved) good favor", or how any kind of positive evaluation of 
that behaviour is either possible in the wider context or is compatible 
with "They must be cut off before the eyes of the people". This is a 
clear and unambiguous negative sense or use of the word. Similarly for 
the more general "sin" in Proverbs 14:34.

I understand that this is an established Aramaic sense of the root XSD, 
but I don't have further details. The Arabic cognate word means "envy", 
and this suggests to me that the word originally had a neutral or 
ambivalent sense rather like QN' "be jealous, zealous" which later split 
into separate positive and negative senses. But I may be wrong here.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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