Biblical Hebrew Forum

["C. Stirling Bartholomew" <threetreepoint AT earthlink.net>]

On 07/07/2005 18:24, C. Stirling Bartholomew wrote:

>
>L. de Regt seems to be suggesting an intentional (authorial intent) contrast
>in the word order between Gen 5:22,24 and Gen 6:9 making note of the
>movement of "with God" from clause final to clause initial position.

On 7/7/05 5:09 PM, "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org> wrote:

> His point is rather
> that the author has made two different choices of word order in these
> two different verses, and that there must be some reason for this

Yes you are right about this. I agree.



On 7/7/05 5:09 PM, "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org> wrote:

>> Further on (p117) L. de Regt faults Alter for his translation of Gen. 14:18

> 
> I think you have misunderstood de Regt here. He does not criticise
> Alter's translation here.

You are right again. This quoted paragraph follows the discussion of Gen.
14:18. I didn't really look close at the numbers and assumed this was a
summary statement of what had just been discussed. Not true, it is a summary
statement of what follows. :-)

Quote: page 118 ****
Alter's translation of 17.14; 18.7; 21.31; 42.20; and 43.13 poses a problem
that is very similar to the one in 16.8, in that at these points his English
translation wrongly suggests that the syntactical inversion is due to
restrictive or contrastive focus, whereas in the Hebrew it is due to putting
the most salient information at the end of the sentence. The literary
effects of the Hebrew and of the English do not correspond here at all.
******** end quote*

Thanks for the clarifications.

Clay Bartholomew