Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Bearpecs AT aol.com]

Gesenius (section 46d) says that "the first syllable of the sing. fem. and  
plur. masc. are usually to be pronounced with shewa mobile" (and then gives  
exceptions).
 
Juoun (section 49c [note 1]), however, says "The shewa is 'medium,'" which  
would mean that the first syllable is closed even though it makes a following 
 
bgdkft rafe.
 
I don't see any discussion in Waltke & O'Connor.
 
Can someone tell me what the latest credible scholarly opionion is?
Thanks!