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  • From: George F Somsel <gfsomsel AT juno.com>
  • To: VadimCherny AT mail.ru
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] shewa in imperative
  • Date: Fri, 24 Jun 2005 04:22:05 -0400

On Fri, 24 Jun 2005 10:22:32 +0300 "Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
writes:
> This becomes ridiculous. Of course, accent and vowel length are
> affected by
> usage, and differ between neutral, question, and exclamation.
> Imperatives are still pronounced with strong intonation in Arabic,
> and
> likely were pronounced the same way in BH--if anything, intonation
> was still
> stronger because of the prevailing gutturals.
> It is also self-evident that the extremely strong pronounciation of
> imperatives, in military commands, reduces the first vowel. The same
> thing
> is likely for BH imperatives.
>
> Vadim Cherny
>
>
> > Mr. Cherny obviously is lacking in his understanding of English.
> There
> > are two distinct pronunciations of "harass" which are not
> determined by
> > the context in which they are found or the use to which they are
> put.
> >
> > Ha ' - es or
> > Ha - ras '
> >
> > The pronunciation used is determined by the preference of the one
> using
> > the term and not by its usage.
> >
> > george
> > gfsomsel
___________

You reference English then switch to Hebrew and Arabic. What occurs in
English is irrelevant to a semitic language such as Hebrew. Perhaps you
are more conversant with English than I (though I have serious doubts
regarding that), but I tell you that the pronunciation of "harass" is not
determined by its usage. You say, "Of course, accent and vowel length
are determined by usage" as though this was obvious. I tell you that it
is not obvious in English but depends upon the preference of the user.
Perhaps it would be best if you were to confine your remarks to Hebrew or
semitic languages in general and leave English out of the equation.

george
gfsomsel
___________
>From mattfeld12 AT charter.net Fri Jun 24 05:07:13 2005
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From: "Walter R. Mattfeld" <mattfeld12 AT charter.net>
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Subject: [b-hebrew] Sons of Eden
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Karl wrote:

"Close, but no cigar. The Isaiah reference is about the "sons of Eden who
are in Talasar" and not to a place name. (DN is spelled the same way as in
Genesis, but the use here is of a people, not of a place".

Dear Karl,

Thankyou for taking the time to read my article. As regards the association
of the "sons of Eden in Tel-assar" with the Assyrian Bit-Adini, the
connection is not "original" with myself, cf. the below from the
International Standard Bible Encyclopedia

CHILDREN OF EDEN

e'-d'-n (bene `edhen): In 2 Ki 19:12; Isa 37:12 "the children of Eden that
were in Telassar" are mentioned in connection with "Gozan, and Haran, and
Rezeph" as having been destroyed by the Assyrians who were before the time
of Sennacherib. The expression, "the children of Eden that were in
Telassar," undoubtedly referred to a tribe which inhabited a region of which
Telassar was the center. Telassar means "the hill of Asshur" and, according
to Schrader, it was a name that might have been given to any place where a
temple had been built to Asshur. Inasmuch as Gozan, and Haran, and Rezeph
were in Mesopotamia it would seem probable that "the children of Eden that
were in Telassar" belonged to the same locality. The "children of Eden" is
quite probably to be identified with the Bit `Adini of the inscriptions and
this referred to a district on the middle Euphrates. According to the
inscriptions Gozan, Haran, Rezeph, and Bit `Adini were destroyed by
Sennacherib's forefathers, and this is in accord with the account in 2 Kings
and Isaiah.
The "Eden" of Ezek 27:23 is usually taken as the name of a place in
Mesopotamia with which Tyre had commercial relations, and probably belongs
to the region of "the chilrden of Eden," discussed above.


http://bible-history.com/isbe/C/CHILDREN+OF+EDEN/



Regards, Walter

Walter Reinhold Warttig Mattfeld y de la Torre, M.A. Ed.

mattfeld12 AT charter.net

www.bibleorigin.net






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