Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

Zech 13:5 but he will say, ‘I am not a prophet; I am a tiller of the ground,
for a man sold me as a slave in my youth.’  (NASB)

The phrase "a man sold me as a slave" is אָדָם הִקְנַנִי.
The verb is causitive, literally "caused me to buy", which I don't think is
reflected in "sold me as a slave".  To sell someone as a slave is not to
cause them to buy.
The only translation that retains the causitive meaning is KJV, which says,
"man taught me to keep cattle", but I don't think that is a causitive
meaning of "buy", although it is causitive.

Does "man" have to be the subject? Can it be the object? Could it be
translated:
for mankind He has made Me to purchase from My youth.
or
for mankind, they have caused Me to purchase from My youth. (treating the
3rd masculine singular as the indefinate pronoun as in 13:9.)
or
for mankind I have been made to purchase from My youth. (replacing
indefinate pronoun with passive)

thanks,
-Steve Miller
Detroit