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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?

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  • From: "Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
  • To: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>, "Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Cc:
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
  • Date: Thu, 28 Apr 2005 15:49:05 +0300

Karl,

We discussed it several times, and you know that I disagree completely.
I taught speed reading years ago, a sort of reading few thousands (actually,
almost hundred thousand in one case) words per minute, and found out that
people understand text when they remember just 2-3% of it, and 25-27% is
subjectively considered "photographic."
When you speak about few ambiguities, you imply that the text is
understandable. But you cannot distinguish piel from paal.

Vadim Cherny

> Likewise, a native speaker in ancient Hebrew could read fluently with few
ambiguities a vowelless text.





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