Biblical Hebrew Forum

["C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>]

Job 38:26 lhm+yr (l-)rC l)-)y$ mdbr l)-)dM bw

Theodotian renders l)-)y$ and l)-)dM in Job 38:26 as
(ou ouc aner and (ou ouc anthropos.

I wonder if this accurately reflects an intended **semantic** distinction
between )y$ and )dM? Or does the choice of two words with similar meanings
have something to do with Hebrew poetics, parallelism, etc? In other words,
do we go astray by stressing the difference in meaning between the two words
if the authors intent was unrelated to a difference in meaning?

It has been suggested that l)-)y$ and  l)-)dM function as adjectives meaning
a place with no human habitation. Does anyone think there is an intended
**semantic** distinction between )y$ and )dM?

greetings,
Clay Bartholomew