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Re: [b-hebrew] )by$ and )dM in Job 38:26

From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
To: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>
Cc: hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] )by$ and )dM in Job 38:26
Date: Sun, 13 Feb 2005 00:12:39 +0000

On 12/02/2005 21:09, C. Stirling Bartholomew wrote:

Job 38:26 lhm+yr (l-)rC l)-)y$ mdbr l)-)dM bw

Theodotian renders l)-)y$ and l)-)dM in Job 38:26 as
(ou ouc aner and (ou ouc anthropos.

I wonder if this accurately reflects an intended **semantic** distinction
between )y$ and )dM? ...

I'm not sure of the semantic significance in this passage, but LXX regularly (although not invariably) renders the male specific )Y$ as the male specific ANHR "man", and the gender generic )DM as the gender generic ANQRWPOS "person". So maybe the translator is simply being sensibly consistent.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/

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[b-hebrew] )by$ and )dM in Job 38:26, C. Stirling Bartholomew, 02/12/2005
- Re: [b-hebrew] )by$ and )dM in Job 38:26, Peter Kirk, 02/12/2005
  - Re: [b-hebrew] )by$ and )dM in Job 38:26, C. Stirling Bartholomew, 02/13/2005
    - Re: [b-hebrew] )y$ and )dM in Job 38:26, C. Stirling Bartholomew, 02/13/2005
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: [b-hebrew] )by$ and )dM in Job 38:26, George F Somsel, 02/12/2005