Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Peter,

> No- it was based on earlier english texts and also compared with the 
> hebrew and greek texts.  That is, imagine the translators of the KJV 
> sitting at their desks (or standing- folk back in that time 
> generally stood while they wrote).  On one side of the desk they 
> have Tyndale and Wycliffe and on the other Hebrew and Greek texts. 
> They took Tyndale and Wycliffe and copied them out while glancing at 
> the originals to make sure that Wycliffe and Tyndale were not too 
> far off the mark.  Where they felt it necessary to update, they did.


> Fair enough. This is the kind of process which I thought was 
> happening. It is not quite paraphrase because the originals are 
> consulted. But it is not an independent translation either. And this 
> is how most English versions have been done, except for Wycliffe's 
> very first one. Ironically one of the few which was not done in this 
> way was "The Message", which is described on its back cover as a 
> "paraphrasing translation".

HH: The HCSB was not done that way. The original translators were to 
do their own translations out of the original languages. There was no 
"mother translation" from which they worked. But, of course, other 
translations were consulted. Also, editors and revisions committees 
also worked out of the original languages with similar access to 
other translations. Not many translations may have been done this 
way, but neither are they always relying on each other, since they 
are often very different from one another. And it would be foolish to 
ignore other translations, which exhibit the labors of many dedicated 
scholars.

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard



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> Peter Kirk
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